bone marrow cavity
A physician obtains cells from the bone marrow cavity using a needle and a syringe. How would this procedure be coded?
A. 36575 B. 37328 C. 38220 D. 35092
34. What is Medicare Part D?
A. The component of Medicare Part A that covers outpatient surgeries B. Add-on coverage for prescription drugs provided through insurance companies approved by Medicare C. Supplemental coverage for war veterans and their dependents D. Add-on coverage for dental procedures
35. A female patient is seen for her annual gynecological examination. During the examination, the physician performs a test to detect cervical cancer. This test is called a/an
A. immunoassay test. B. Pap smear. C. carcinoembryonic antigen test. D. mycobacterial culture.
36. A physician is called to the intensive care unit for a patient with second-degree burns sustained on 55% of his body while cooking in the kitchen where he works. The physician sees the patient in the critical care unit for two hours, leaves the unit, and returns later the same day to provide an additional hour of critical care. What ICD-10-CM and CPT codes would be assigned?
A. L91.8, 99291 × 2, 99292 × 4 B. R53.81, 99291, 99293 × 5 C. Z30.09, 99293, 99294 × 2 D. T31.50, 99291, 99292 × 4
37. A change in the tissues and cells within a specific area on or in the body is called a
A. lesion. B. cyst. C. neoplasm. D. tumor.
38. Information about a patient can becan be released for research under the terms of HIPAA, only if
A. the patient signs an authorization immediately upon admission. B. the research is critical for technological development. C. the patient has authorized the release and only a limited amount of information is released. D. researchers obtain authorization from the admitting physician.
39. A patient is diagnosed with breast cancer and undergoes a partial mastectomy. What CPT code would be assigned?
A. 19305 B. 19307 C. 19304 D. 19301
40. To conform to the HIPAA Privacy Rule, which of the following safeguards must be maintained in health care facilities?
A. Immunization and injection safeguards B. Reasonable administrative, technical, and physical safeguards C. ICD-7 provisional safeguards D. Hazardous waste protection safeguards
41. A patient sustains a fracture of the femur while playing football in a nearby park. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned?
A. S72.001A B. S72.009A C. S72.003A D. S49.006A
42. According to the guidelines for medical records outlined in the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), patients
A. have the right to have errors reviewed by a hospital administrator. B. have the right to correct errors in identification data only. C. have the right to have errors in their medical records corrected. D. do not have the right to have errors corrected, as the data has been previously verified by the physician.
43. Modifier -23 indicates that
A. two surgeons performed a procedure. B. a procedure was performed bilaterally. C. a physician reviewed and interpreted a radiology procedure. D. the patient received general anesthesia for a procedure that would ordinarily be performed with local or no anesthesia.
44. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) was created for the purpose of
A. streamlining claims processing and reducing paperwork through electronic transmission. B. stabilizing administrative costs and productivity. C. decreasing employee turnover and reducing the volume of new hire paperwork. D. modifying legal and ethical issues surrounding medical records retention.
45. A patient is seen in the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. It’s determined that the patient is experiencing inflammation of the pancreas, which is also called
A. pancreaticoduodonal arcade. B. pancreatitis. C. pancreatolysis. D. pancreatonia.
46. A 55-year-old patient was injured while working as a carpenter on a construction site. While framing the roof of a two-story house, he fell and hit his head. He was diagnosed with a concussion to the left side of his head, and underwent a right frontal parietal craniotomy with removal of a subdural hematoma. During the patient’s period of recovery, he was given a medication that resulted in a rash on his abdomen. The physician conducted an expanded problem focused history and exam, with straightforward medical decision making. What CPT code(s) should be assigned?
A. 99251 B. 99252 C. 99292, 99291 D. 99253
47. Taking certain steps to protect PHI from being accidentally released to individuals who don’t need to know the information is called the
A. minimum necessary standard. B. privacy management statute. C. health information guardianship guideline. D. information provision standard.
48. The main term represents the most basic aspect of a disease or condition. For example, the main term of a diagnosis involving a broken arm is
A. broken. B. break. C. fracture. D. arm.
49. Performing a daily check for viruses and malware is one of the
A. requirements of the Help Desk. B. routine aspects of software maintenance. C. sensible guidelines for Internet use in health care facilities. D. functions of HIM encoders.
50. A coder overhears a confidential statement made outside of the court, and then, when called to testify, repeats the statement as being truth. This is an example of
A. cross-examination. B. hearsay. C. speculation. D. a direct quote.
51. A patient receives two venous pressure clamps for hemodialysis. What HCPCS Level II code is assigned?
A. A4751 B. A4751 × 2 C. A4918 × 2 D. A4918
52. The process of removing tissue for histopathology is called
A. shaving. B. debridement. C. excision. D. biopsy.
53. A coder would assign modifier -53 to report
A. dental procedures. B. repeat procedures. C. anesthesia administration. D. procedures cancelled due to the patient’s condition.
54. Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) allows
A. resolving medical malpractice suits by submitting pretrial depositions. B. lawyer-to-lawyer mediation during trial recess. C. mediating disputes with a judge in the presence of the bailiff. D. litigants to resolve disputes prior to or after the start of litigation.
55. Code range 99231–99233 pertains to
A. initial hospital care. B. subsequent hospital care. C. consultation services. D. hospital discharge services.
56. A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain, nausea, and intractable vomiting. Unable to pinpoint the source of the patient’s complaints, the physician decides to admit the patient to the hospital. After conducting a complete history and examination, the patient’s final diagnosis is determined to be chronic duodenal ulcer. The patient remains hospitalized for three days. The physician sees the patient on the day of discharge. What ICD-10 and CPT codes are assigned?
A. 99234, N17.9 B. 99223, I48.91 C. 99238, K26.7 D. 99291, D63.1
57. The specific guidelines that constitute a valid release of information under the HIPAA Privacy Rule are described as
A. OIG specifications. B. E/M levels. C. considerations in relation to risk management. D. core elements.
58. The suffix –centesis means
A. abnormal condition. B. calculus or stone. C. a surgical puncture for fluid removal. D. separation, breakdown, destruction.
59. The code for an ESWL would be found in the
A. Urinary and Male Genital Systems of CPT. B. Chemotherapy section of HCPCS. C. Digestive System of CPT. D. Cardiovascular System of CPT.
60. A female patient is diagnosed with breast cancer of the lower-inner quadrant of the right breast. The patient undergoes a modified radical mastectomy of the right breast in an attempt to circumvent the spread of the cancer to any secondary anatomical sites. The procedure was performed in three stages. In addition to the radical mastectomy, the physician also performed a right breast biopsy to treat the breast tumor in the lower-inner quadrant. What ICD-10-CM and CPT codes are assigned?
A. 19307-58-RT, 19101-59-RT, C50.311 B. 15852-58, Z48.01 C. 11602, 15240, C50.312 D. 19307-RT, 19101-RT, C50.211